Posted by Jerry Higdon on September 18, 2002 at 17:49:48:
In Reply to: Re: the word posted by Paul Phelps on September 17, 2002 at 21:18:24:
The word antichrist appears only four times in all Scripture: 1 Jn. 2:18, 2:22, 4:3; and 2 Jn. 1:7. It simply means adversary of Christ or opposed to Christ. 1 Jn. 2:18 refers to false teachers or imposters. In 1 Jn. 4:3, John is referring to the “spirit of antichrist,” meaning a state of mind – of false teachers, or opposition to true Christianity, for example.
Antichrists (plural) appears only once in Scripture (1 Jn. 2:18), John telling us that many already existed in his day.
We can call the “man of sin” in 2 Th. 2:3, or any number of others, the antichrist, but it’s only a characterization, not a Biblical designation or title. By narrowing the antichrist (spirit) down to one person, we divert people from and play into the hands of the billions of antichrists already at work.
Think now! Remember who killed Jesus and those who betrayed Him to the Romans, demanding His death. Jesus was exposing the ungodly practices of Judaism and Judaism killed Him, at least indirectly. Jesus considered them guiltier than the ones who actually did it. Please see ((Jn. 19:6-12).
We cannot in truth deny that Biblical fact. Acknowledging doesn’t make us anti-Semitic or anti-Jew. It’s an honest Biblical observation and acknowledgment. Judaism, then and now - all Judaism is antichrist – no ifs or buts about it. What could be more antichrist than murdering Him, because He was the heir of the scepter (Gen. 49:10) they wanted (Mt. 21:33-45)? Let’s not aid the antichrist movements by diverting attention away from them to a single evil end-time leader. Of course the “man of sin” is an antichrist, but not the antichrist. There’s no such thing except the romanticizing of an evil end-time figure. I’m not suggesting that all Jews are guilty of Jesus murder, only those who still defend those who did (Jew or not), nor suggesting the Judaism is the only antichrist.
Now, we have other Scripture references to a great end-time war involving Israel (and/or “greater Israel”), and struggles between good and evil: Rev. 12; Ezek. 38; Deut. 32:15-36 and others. Ezek. 38 clearly speaks of God’s end-time people Israel, for it says so explicitly. It appears that Deut. 32:15-36 is referring to the same end-time Israel.
The reference to the “waters” (peoples/nations) of Euphrates being dried up in Rev. 16:2, likely represents the surrounding nations (now a barrier) being eliminated or allied with the invaders, thus clearing the way. The reference in Rev. 9:14 to the four “angels which are bound in the great river Euphrates” being loosed should read “angels which are bound ‘by’ the great river Euphrates.” “Four angels” refers to four leaders or nations in the Euphrates region bound (retained) there for a Divine, specific purpose. The Greek word translated “in” is the same word used for “by,” which is more realistic. Let’s not spiritualize away the true and logical interpretations of God’s symbolic language.
I could go on and on but let’s forego further detail and consider the question, “What precludes the evil antichrist Empire coexisting with Israel and “greater Israel”? And, as for God only opening rivers for His people, there’s no Scriptural authority for that, as He clearly dries up (removes the obstacles) the Euphrates to make way for the invading Eastern armies, which according to Exek. 38, are most of the larger Middle-Eastern and other Arab nations, along with one (or more) very great and powerful nation (s) coming against God's people Israel "in the latter days."
The great battle of Armageddon or Nation where the troops will converge is the same Israel of Exek. 38, and Deut. 32:15-36, the United States, and is coming soon.
Jerry
www.jdhigdon.com
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